Law in the Internet Society

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AnarchistsAuthorsOwnersTestingThoughts 13 - 23 Oct 2009 - Main.BrendanMulligan
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Wow, I created a page! I'm trying to sort out my thoughts on the lecture of October 1, 2009, and I thought that Professor Moglen's comment in the GraspingTheNetTalk page would be a good starting point.
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 My previous comment was a little rambling, so basically my question is this: when Prof. Moglen said that (1) anarchist aesthetic goods are distributed more efficiently and (2) anarchist functional goods are superior, is it fair to say that anarchist functional goods are not necessarily distributed more efficiently? (As mentioned in class, an aesthetic goods cannot be superior/inferior to another.) If so, I am trying to understand why not--both are zero marginal cost goods so it seems like the same rules should apply. (Also, it's quite possible that I'm making more of this than was intended and ignoring the clear implication that anarchist functional goods are superior AND distributed more efficiently for the zero marginal cost reason above.)
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Edit: Stephen, your point's well taken. I was working from a starting point that anarchist functional goods are not distributed more efficiently than non-anarchist functional goods, because otherwise that seemed worth mention, at least as much as better distribution of aesthetic goods did. I was attempting to supplant an explanation for this and the best I could come up with was stretching the definition of distribution to include getting something the consumer wants into their hands. Therefore if the consumer doesn't know it's available because of lack of promotion or otherwise, they won't know they want it and distribution will not necessarily be better for anarchist goods. Anyway, I may have missed this in class before, but I think it's now pretty clear that my initial premise was wrong, so most of my points are mooted.
 -- BrendanMulligan - 22 Oct 2009
 
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Revision 13r13 - 23 Oct 2009 - 00:09:28 - BrendanMulligan
Revision 12r12 - 22 Oct 2009 - 15:34:48 - StephenClarke
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